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Title: without l hopetal Post by tony123 on Nov 25th, 2007, 12:45pm find lim(x- sin x ) / x^3 x-----> 0 |
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Title: Re: without l hopetal Post by towr on Nov 25th, 2007, 1:02pm [hide]sin(x) = x - 1/6 x3 + O(x5) lim xhttp://www.ocf.berkeley.edu/~wwu/YaBBImages/symbols/to.gif0 (x- sin x ) / x^3 = lim xhttp://www.ocf.berkeley.edu/~wwu/YaBBImages/symbols/to.gif0 [1/6 x3 - O(x5)]/x3 = lim xhttp://www.ocf.berkeley.edu/~wwu/YaBBImages/symbols/to.gif0 1/6 - O(x2) = 1/6 [/hide] |
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Title: Re: without l hopetal Post by Hippo on Nov 26th, 2007, 12:42am Funny to use Taylor approximation in the context of restricted methods. Suppose the derivations were not inveneted yet ... ;) |
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Title: Re: without l hopetal Post by towr on Nov 26th, 2007, 5:01am on 11/26/07 at 00:42:47, Hippo wrote:
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Title: Re: without l hopetal Post by Hippo on Nov 26th, 2007, 6:21am on 11/26/07 at 05:01:23, towr wrote:
OK, can you formulate the sin definition in your terminology? I have seen several definitions, but never starting with x-x^3/6+O(x^5). But it's true that defining sin,cos using the equation f''+f=0 does not work, as well. May be the author should give us the knowledge which can be used... on 11/26/07 at 07:27:02, pex wrote:
OK I scoope :) ... and the O(x^5) is just shortening the expression not using sum. |
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Title: Re: without l hopetal Post by pex on Nov 26th, 2007, 7:27am on 11/26/07 at 06:21:59, Hippo wrote:
sin x = sum(k=0 to infinity) (-1)k x2k+1 / (2k + 1)! |
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Title: Re: without l hopetal Post by essafty on Nov 26th, 2007, 1:47pm hi here is my solution |
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Title: Re: without l hopetal Post by Hippo on Nov 27th, 2007, 3:02pm essafty: sin(a+b), cos(a+b) is the only trick, no derivations required ... good job |
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Title: Re: without l hopetal Post by rmsgrey on Nov 28th, 2007, 12:45pm on 11/27/07 at 15:02:47, Hippo wrote:
I'm not sure about whether y-1sin(y) tending to 1 as y tends to 0 is sufficiently obvious without either a series expansion for sin or l'Hopital's rule... |
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Title: Re: without l hopetal Post by SMQ on Nov 28th, 2007, 1:26pm on 11/28/07 at 12:45:23, rmsgrey wrote:
Hmm, you raise an interesting point, but it does seem "obvious" to me that, if two functions are tangent at some point and both continuous and continuously differentiable in some neighborhood of that point, the limit of their quotient at that point is 1. The functions y = x and y = sin(x) are clearly tangent at 0 and smooth in a neighborhood of 0, so I guess I would consider the limit to be sufficiently obvious. --SMQ |
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Title: Re: without l hopetal Post by Obob on Nov 28th, 2007, 1:37pm Well at least by definition, limy->0 sin y/y = d/dy (sin y)|y=0 = cos 0 = 1. Using l'Hopital to evaluate this limit is a circular argument, since to apply it you need to know the derivative of sin y at y=0. Of course proving that the derivative of sin y at cos y is another matter entirely, and depends greatly on what definitions for the functions are used. I prefer to define them by their Taylor series (or, what is the same, in terms of the complex exponential), since this is the easiest way to define them and deduce their properties using some basic complex analysis. Perhaps a more elementary definition of sin t though is that it is the y coordinate of the point (a,b) on the unit circle such that the segment l from the origin to (a,b) makes an angle of t with the x-axis. If t is given in radians, then the area of the sector enclosed by the x-axis, the unit circle, and l is given by t/2. The area of the right triangle with vertices the origin, (a,b), and (a,0) is cos t sin t / 2, while the area of the right triangle with vertices the origin, (1,0) and the point of l meeting the line x=1 is given by sin t / (2 cos t) (since this triangle is similar to the first right triangle). The sector of the circle contains the first right triangle and is contained in the second, so for all small t we have cos t sin t / 2 <= t/2 <= sin t / (2 cos t). Dividing through by sin t / 2, we have cos t <= t / sin t <= 1/cos t, and since cos 0 = 1 we see that limt->0 t / sin t = 1. This clearly implies the other limit. |
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