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Title: Overlapping Circle and Triangle Post by THUDandBLUNDER on Dec 13th, 2006, 4:14pm An equilateral triangle of unit side length overlaps a circle of radius r centred at the centre of the triangle. What value of r will minimize the shaded area in the diagram? |
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Title: Re: Overlapping Circle and Triangle Post by towr on Dec 14th, 2006, 3:47am Possibly, it's [hide] 1/3 [/hide]. But after all the problems I encountered in my calculation, I'm not sure of anything at the moment. |
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Title: Re: Overlapping Circle and Triangle Post by Grimbal on Dec 14th, 2006, 5:47am I would say the same on the simple principle that the proportion of circle inside the triangle must be 1/2. When it is the case the increase of area outside the triangle matches the decrease of area inside the triangle when the radius increases infinitesimally. Geometrically you find a diameter of 2/3. |
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Title: Re: Overlapping Circle and Triangle Post by THUDandBLUNDER on Dec 14th, 2006, 7:08am Well done, Grimbal. An astute observation. As usual toiling towr is also right. :) How about if we replace the triangle with a square? With a regular n-gon? |
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Title: Re: Overlapping Circle and Triangle Post by towr on Dec 14th, 2006, 8:48am In general I get [hide]sqrt(2) cot( [pi] /n)/[2 sqrt(cos( [pi] /n) + 1)][/hide] for larger n it's [hide]approximately n/(2 [pi]) ; or better yet n/(2 [pi]) - 1/( [pi]n) [/hide] |
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Title: Re: Overlapping Circle and Triangle Post by THUDandBLUNDER on Dec 14th, 2006, 12:34pm That's right, towr! Slightly simpler is [hide](1/2)*cot(pi/n)sec(pi/2n)[/hide] How did you get your 1/n(pi) refinement? Also, the optimal circle has equal arc lengths inside and outside of the n-gon for all n. |
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Title: Re: Overlapping Circle and Triangle Post by towr on Dec 14th, 2006, 12:49pm on 12/14/06 at 12:34:40, THUDandBLUNDER wrote:
I plotted the difference and saw a hyperbola, and I tried a few values, pi seemed a nice one to leave it at. Possibly a taylor series could find a better justified fit. |
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Title: Re: Overlapping Circle and Triangle Post by Eigenray on Dec 14th, 2006, 10:05pm You would expect r ~ n/(2pi) since the circumference ~ n. In fact, r = n/(2pi) - 5pi/(48 n) - 293pi3/(11520 n3) - ... But lets flip it around: fix the radius of the circle at 1, and vary the polygon. Then the inradius is r = cos(pi/2n) = [1+cos(pi/n)]/2, and if R is the circumradius, then rR = [1+sec(pi/n)]/2, and the area is A = n[tan(pi/n) + sin(pi/n)]/2. |
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