University of California, Berkeley
Department of Psychology

Psychology 1
Fall 1998

Final Examination

Choose the best answer to each of the following 100 questions. Questions are drawn from the text and lectures in roughly equal proportions, with the understanding that there is considerable overlap between the two sources. Usually, only one question is drawn from each major section of each chapter of the required readings; again, sometimes this question also draws on material discussed in class. Read the entire exam through before answering any questions: sometimes one question will help you answer another one.

Most questions can be correctly answered in one of two ways: (1) by fact-retrieval, meaning that you remember the answer from your reading of the text or listening to the lecture; or (2) inference, meaning that you can infer the answer from some general principle discussed in the text or lecture. If you cannot determine the correct answer by either of these methods, try to eliminate at least one option as clearly wrong: this maximizes the likelihood that you will get the correct answer by chance. Also, go with your intuitions: if you have actually done the assigned readings and attended the lectures, your "informed guesses" will likely be right more often than they are wrong.

1. Phillipe Pinel, an eighteenth-century French physician, is credited with:

a. the invention of the straitjacket.
b. the discovery of the causes of paresis.
c. major reforms in mental hospital practices.*
d. introducing tax laws for public support of asylums.

2. In psychiatric classification, a "syndrome" is:

a. a pattern of signs and symptoms that usually go together.*
b. a form of disorganized thinking found in schizophrenia.
c. the key symptom identifying each disorder.
d. a mental disorder that causes physical damage.

3. _____ are misinterpretations of real events, while _____ are experiences with no basis in real sensory stimulation.

a. Disturbances of thought; hallucinations
b. Hallucinations; ideas of reference
c. Delusions; hallucinations*
d. Ideas of reference; delusions

4. Depressed patients often exhibit vegetative symptoms. These include:

a. weakness, loss of appetite, and sleep disorders.*
b. disrupted attention and poor short-term memory.
c. social withdrawal, anxiety, and delusions of worthlessness.
d. agitation, anxiety, and cognitive impairment.

5. Fear of a panic attack leads to an autonomic process that leads to even more fear of an attack. This causes a full-blown panic attack. What does this process best exemplify?

a. a vicious cycle*
b. the start of a psychosis
c. opponent processes
d. negative feedback

6. In psychogenic fugue, the individual:

a. wanders away from home, but is amnesic for how he got there.*
b. shows inappropriate emotional responses, but cannot remember doing so.
c. acts aggressively towards others, but cannot remember having done so.
d. composes contrapuntal music in the style of Bach, but cannot remember doing so.

7. Conversion disorder is diagnosed much less frequently today than it was a century ago. This:

a. may be due to more permissive child-rearing, especially in the area of sexual behavior.
b. may be due to a general increase in medical sophistication in the lay population.
c. because chronic fatigue and somatoform pain disorder have replaced conversion disorder in modern society.
d. b and c only*

8. The part of the Type A behavior pattern responsible for its link with coronary heart disease is probably:

a. hostility manifested as anger, cynicism, and distrust.*
b. competitiveness and constant striving to be better than others.
c. the individual's inability to relax and enjoy his or her life.
d. none of the above

9. Research into possible biological bases of antisocial personality indicates that:

a. there is some indication that the chemical composition of the blood of antisocial personality types is different from that of normal individuals.
b. antisocial personalities seem to be more reactive to stress in terms of physiological measures such as the GSR, but are much less reactive in terms of behavioral indices of anxiety.
c. antisocial personalities appear to show less of a physiological response to stress, in terms of GSR, than do normals.*
d. both a and c

10. Which of the following findings suggests that antipsychotics like Thorazine and Haldol are more than just high-powered tranquilizers?

a. These drugs do not relieve anxiety or depression.
b. Powerful sedatives like phenobarbital have no effect on schizophrenic symptoms.
c. Patients actually report more, rather than less, energy and alertness when taking these drugs.
d. a and b only *

11. When antidepressant drugs are given to normal subjects, these subjects experience:

a. depression.
b. little or no change in mood.*
c. euphoria.
d. heightened levels of energy.

12. There are some problems in using placebos in double-blind studies of drug effectiveness. For instance:

a. it may be unethical to give a placebo and withhold an accepted treatment.
b. because of characteristic side effects, it is sometimes easy to tell who has taken the medication and who has taken the placebo.
c. it is more useful to test the effectiveness of a new drug against the best alternative treatment, rather than against a placebo.
d. all of the above *

13. What do classical and neo-Freudian psychoanalysts both view as the key to neurosis?

a. the conflict the patient had with her parents
b. the hidden sexual desires the patient has
c. unconscious conflict that the patient does not know exists *
d. a struggle between the id and the ego for control

14. What is the basic goal of systematic desensitization?

a. The patient learns to face his fear regardless of how scared it makes him.
b. The patient conditions a state of relaxation to fear-evoking stimuli. *
c. The patient systematically overcomes a fear by coming in contact with it every day.
d. The patient learns a series of visual images that can be used during a fear-evoking situation.

15. In some hospital wards, "token economies" are used with patients who are apathetic toward life. A token economy is an example of:

a. classical conditioning.
b. operant conditioning. *
c. aversion techniques.
d. cognitive therapy.

16. How does cognitive therapy help people suffering from panic disorders?

a. It teaches the patient to relax her body at the onset of a panic attack.
b. It helps the patient achieve a more realistic interpretation of her bodily sensations. *
c. It teaches the patient how to use positive thinking and imagery to alleviate panic attacks.
d. It teaches the patient how to use biofeedback to control panic attacks.

17. What are nondirective techniques?

a. echoing or restating what a client seemed to say or feel *
b. not being involved directly with a patient
c. giving advice only when directly asked for it by the patient
d. techniques that are not directed at any one specific goal

18. "Existential" therapists are characterized by:

a. the use of a couch and free association.
b. the philosophy that life is meaningless.
c. optimistic faith in the individual's capacity for growth.
d. a belief in the importance of responsible, free choice. *

19. Advocates of group therapy claim that group experience is more effective than individual therapy because:

a. the individual patient gets much more attention.
b. the group provides on-the-spot practice in interpersonal skills. *
c. group therapists use a client-centered approach.
d. each patient learns that he is unique.

20. Why do family therapists prefer to see the family as a group rather than as individuals?

a. They can better understand the problem this way.
b. The therapist can act as a translator who helps each member better understand the other members. *
c. Family therapy is such a growing field that therapists can't see each member individually, even though this is better.
d. Coming as a group often puts the patients more at ease.

21. Some therapies work better than others for specific disorders. For example:

a. anxiety disorders are best treated using behavior therapies.
b. cognitive therapy is more effective than behavior therapy for panic disorder.
c. psychotherapy is of little use in bipolar disorders.
d. all of the above *

22. Extremely high intelligence (IQ) counts as "abnormal" behavior under the _____ criterion:

a. frequency*
b. compliance
c. distress
d. maladaptiveness

23. Deeply ingrained patterns of maladaptive behavior, in the absence of anxiety of loss of reality testing, are characteristic of the:

a. functional psychoses
b. neuroses
c. personality disorders*
d. organic brain syndromes

24. Studies of smooth pursuit eye movements in schizophrenia provide evidence for:

a. psychological deficits in attention.*
b. maladaptive social learning.
c. delusional thought formation.
d. the moral model of mental illness.

25. In the diathesis-stress model of psychopathology:

a. diathesis factors cause acute episodes of psychopathology to occur.
b. high levels of environmental stress render the person vulnerable to mental illness.
c. diathesis factors are always biological in nature.
d. stress factors can be biological in nature.*

26. Biofeedback training can:

a. enhance systematic desensitization in cases of phobia.
b. enhance self-regulation of the autonomic nervous system.*
c. reduce levels of dopamine in cases of schizophrenia.
d. increase levels of serotonin in cases of depression.

27. Twin and family studies of schizophrenia indicate that:

a. genetic factors contribute only weakly to schizophrenic diathesis.
b. the shared family environment serves as a stress factor.
c. most stress factors are located in the nonshared environment.*
d. first-degree relatives show increased levels of dopamine compared to more distant relatives.

28. According to the doctrine of mentalism:

a. feelings and motives are less important than cognitions in determining behavior.
b. motives and cognitions are more important than emotions in determining behavior.
c. emotions and cognitions are conscious determinants of behavior, while motives operate unconsciously.
d. none of the above.*

29. Above-threshold depolarizing currents are repeatedly applied at a rate of 1 per second to a single neuron. If we increase the frequency of stimulation to 10 per second we can expect:

a. an increase in the number of action potentials per second.*
b. an increase in the magnitude of the action potential(s..
c. that the number of action potentials per second will remain the same.
d. a and b

30. A fundamental difference between the endocrine and nervous systems is in terms of the:

a. distance the chemicals must travel to have an effect.*
b. types of chemicals used as transmitters.
c. means by which messages travel from one cell to another.
d. presence (endocrine. vs. absence (nervous. of target organs.

31. An electrode on the cortex of a conscious patient, when activated, produces sensations of a loud hum. The electrode is probably touching the _____ lobe.

a. frontal
b. parietal
c. temporal*
d. occipital

32. Which of the following would be the best evidence that the right hemisphere understands some language?

a. People with a severed corpus callosum can respond to simple written commands presented to only the left of their fixation point.*
b. Most normal right-handed people can write some with their left hand.
c. People with a severed corpus callosum can answer questions delivered to either ear.
d. Strokes in the left hemisphere of right-handed people severely disrupt language understanding.

33. Negative feedback _____ the original behavior.

a. accelerates
b. stops
c. reverses
d. either b or c*

34. Which of the following produces drinking?

a. decrease in total blood volume*
b. an increase in blood glucose concentration
c. heating of the posterior hypothalamus
d. a and c

35. One plausible reason some people are constitutionally predisposed to become obese is that they:

a. absorb calories less efficiently than normal and hence must eat more.
b. have more neurons than normal in specialized areas of their hypothalamus.
c. live in a culture that provides abundant cues for eating food high in calories.
d. burn nutrient fuel more efficiently than normal.*

36. The sympathetic nervous system is concerned with:

a. vegetative functions.
b. slowing of the heart.
c. activating function.*
d. digestion.

37. Which of the following is the best measure of the biological "fitness" of an animal?

a. its longevity
b. the number of times it succeeds in mating
c. the number of offspring it produces
d. the number of its grandchildren *

38. Which of the following behaviors seems to have the same motivational basis as predatory attack?

a. self-defense
b. threat displays
c. feeding *
d. escape

39. Sociobiologists argue that women are more cautious than men in evaluating sexual partners because:

a. our cultural norms dictate that women should be more reticent in sexual matters than men.
b. there is more variability in the reproductive potential of men than in the reproductive potential of women.
c. women have learned that men cannot always be trusted to fulfill their parental responsibilities.
d. a woman's biological investment in children is greater than a man's. *

40. In comparing animal displays and human language we find that:

a. most mammals have a repertoire of displays and signals that is nearly half as large as the word vocabulary of the average human adult.
b. the animal display "language" is a flexible productive system.
c. animal displays are often chained together or organized to form longer and more complex messages.
d. none of the above*

41. The phenomena of reconditioning and spontaneous recovery suggested to Pavlov that:

a. extinction involved the undoing of the CS-US connection established during conditioning.
b. associations diminished in intensity during conditioning.
c. the amount of inhibition built up during extinction did not diminish over time.
d. extinction involved the suppression of the CR established during conditioning. *

42. If the presentation of a reinforcer is delayed after a response is made, the reinforcer will be:

a. more effective.
b. less effective. *
c. equally effective.
d. none of the above

43 In the typical classical conditioning experiment performed by Pavlov, the relationship between the CS and the US was:

a. contiguous.
b. contingent.
c. both contiguous and contingent. *
d. neither contiguous nor contingent.

44. The normal defense reaction of a certain species involves freezing in the face of danger. Which of the following responses will members of this species find easiest to learn in order to avoid shock?

a. pressing a bar in order to avoid shock
b. staying immobile in order to avoid shock *
c. turning a wheel in order to avoid shock
d. making a specific gross motor movement in order to avoid shock

45. Studies of conditioned taste aversion contradict all of the following assumptions of stimulus-response (S-R) learning theory except:

a. association by contiguity.
b. arbitrariness.
c. empty organism.
d. passive organism.*

46. In a 1935 poll of U.S. voters selected randomly from telephone directories all over the country, the results predicted the defeat of the incumbent president, Franklin D. Roosevelt, who in fact won by a landslide. The faulty prediction was caused by the use of:

a. a sample that was too small in number.
b. a stratified sample.
c. a biased sample. *
d. all of the above

47. A z-score:

a. allows for comparison of scores obtained from different distributions. *
b. evaluates a particular score relative to the median and range of distribution.
c. is a measure of central tendency of a distribution.
d. is a measure of variability within a distribution.

48. A teacher gives her students a test in arithmetic and another test in vocabulary. She computes the correlation between the tests and finds that it is + .50. Afterward, she finds she has made a mistake in grading. To correct it, she adds 5 points to every arithmetic score, and 2 points to every vocabulary score. She then recomputes the correlation coefficient. What can we say about the recomputed correlation coefficient?

a. It will be less than + .50.
b. It will be more than + .50.
c. It will be + .50. *
d. There is no way of telling what it will be without knowing the means and standard deviations of the two tests.

49. Behavioral scientists generally regard a score as "statistically significant" if:

a. it is less than two standard deviations away from the mean.
b. it is more than two standard deviations away from the mean. *
c. it is above 70.
d. it is between one and two standard deviations away from the mean.

50. Transduction refers to:

a. the point at which the proximal sensory stimulus impinges upon the organism.
b. the conversion of the proximal stimulus into a receptor process, which gives rise to a neural impulse. *
c. the psychological sensation associated with a stimulus.
d. the electrical activity of the cerebral cortex caused by the perception of a stimulus.

51. In a detection experiment, the payoff matrix is changed so as to increase the bias toward saying "yes." This change will lead to an increase in the number of:

a. hits.
b. misses.
c. false alarms.
d. a and c *

52. A 200-hertz tone is sounded continuously. Under these circumstances one would observe:

a. a frequency of impulse firing in the auditory nerve of approximately 200 hertz. *
b. the basilar membrane vibrating at an average of 200 hertz, with one area vibrating at a substantially faster rate.
c. one place in the basilar membrane going through a larger deflection, whereas adjacent places are not deflected.
d. a wave traveling along the basilar membrane at a frequency of approximately 200 hertz.

53. The negative afterimage of a violet color is:

a. purplish blue.
b. black.
c. greenish yellow.*
d. orange.

54. The "visual cliff" experiments with human infants demonstrate that:

a. young children (six months. have no depth perception.
b. perceptual abilities for perceiving depth are innate.
c. by the time they can crawl, infants show depth perception. *
d. none of the above

55. One processing channel is more important than others for the visual identification of objects. Which is it?

a. color
b. motion
c. position
d. lightness*

56. The reversible vase/face illustration and the young woman/old woman drawing both exemplify the general point about human perception that:

a. you pay attention to stimuli that are the most meaningful at the time.
b. the same stimulus can give rise to more than one percept.*
c. different stimuli can give rise to the same percept.
d. perceptual processes are built up from the synthesis of primitive features.

57. Perceptual constancy refers to the ability to:

a. see figures standing out against a ground.
b. resolve ambiguities in patterns of stimuli.
c. perceive depth in paintings.
d. perceive objects as invariant despite changes in sensory activity.*

58. Two groups hear a list of 20 unrelated items and are tested for immediate recall a few seconds after they hear the last word. In group I, the items are presented at the rate of one second per item; in group II, they are presented at two seconds per item. We would expect:

a. the same primacy effect for both groups; a greater recency effect for group I.
b. the same primacy effect for both groups; a greater recency effect for group II.
c. the same recency effect in both groups; a greater primacy effect for group I.
d. the same recency effect for both groups; a greater primacy effect for group II.*

59. What is the main reason that various mnemonic schemes, like the method of loci, are of limited usefulness in remembering information for most college courses?

a. The material to be learned usually has an intrinsic organization.*
b. Mnemonic schemes can only be used with meaningless material.
c. Abstract, rather than concrete, examples are most helpful in learning most course material.
d. The delay between study and examinations is usually too long for mnemonic schemes to work.

60. The more elaborate the rehearsal:

a. the more confused a person is likely to be at the time of retrieval.
b. the greater the chance for proactive inhibition.
c. the greater the likelihood of retrieval.*
d. the less is the need for chunking.

61. The curve of long-term forgetting for such things as memory for a foreign language:

a. falls off quickly, then levels off. *
b. falls off gradually during its entire course.
c. falls off slowly at first, then quickly thereafter.
d. shows that all learners achieve the same baseline after many years have passed.

62. Unlike images, words are:

a. picture-like.
b. not arbitrary.
c. meaningless.
d. symbolic.*

63. Based on what you know about concept formation, to which of the following statements would a subject take longest to respond "true" or "false"?

a. Is a maple a tree?
b. Is a table furniture?
c. Is a penguin a bird?*
d. Is a rose a flower?

64. Learning a skill involves:

a. increases and plateaus in performance.*
b. steady increases in performance.
c. a constant plateau in performance.
d. a Stroop effect.

65. A big advantage of using a heuristic instead of an algorithm is that:

a. it might work even on an ill-defined problem.*
b. that the heuristic gives only one solution.
c. one is assured of eventually getting a correct answer.
d. the heuristic allows more creative responses.

66. Expected utility theory differs from expected value theory in that:

a. utilities are subjective, while values are objective.*
b. the probabilities in value theory are valid, while those in utility theory are distorted.
c. the computation of utilities, but not values is biased by the wording of the question.
d. utility theory assumes that the decision maker is rational, while value theory does not.

67. The word "studying" contains _____ morphemes.

a. 1
b. 2*
c. 3
d. 8

68. According to the prototype theory, a prototype is:

a. a list of all the features that characterize a category.
b. a list of all the defining features that characterize a category.
c. a family resemblance.
d. a mental average of all the various examples of a category a person has encountered. *

69. Analyses of the linguistic abilities of children in the first year of life indicate that:

a. children begin to babble in order to initiate communication with their parents.
b. deaf children babble throughout their lifetime but never develop speech.
c. infants have no means, other than babbling, to communicate with parents.
d. none of the above *

70. Human language can be differentiated from most or all animal communication because:

a. only humans can transmit messages.
b. the ability to solve problems is unique to humans.
c. animals are unable to use sounds.
d. it employs rules for arranging sounds or letters into meaningful combinations.*

71. The Asch-type experiment with difficult comparisons demonstrates that:

a. a dissenting minority cannot withstand the opinion of the majority.
b. social comparison is especially important in ambiguous situations. *
c. uncertainty increases emotional disturbance.
d. ambiguity produces more rigid responses.

72. In an experiment performed by Asch, substitution of the term _____ for _____ in a seven-trait list was sufficient to change subjects' total impression of the person described.

a. intelligent; stupid
b. obedient; disobedient
c. cold; warm *
d. determined; cautious

73. When people attempt to determine why an individual behaved as he or she did, they tend to:

a. be equally likely to infer situational or dispositional causes.
b. infer dispositional causes more readily than situational causes. *
c. infer situational causes more readily than dispositional causes.
d. overlook both situational and dispositional causes in assigning reasons for behavior.

74. The fact that we have many more emotional states than the small number of basic ones (e.g., 10. proposed suggests that:

a. physiological state plays a sufficient role in determining emotion.
b. interpretive processes play a sufficient role in determining emotion.
c. interpretive processes play a necessary role in determining emotion. *
d. none of the above

75. Diffusion of responsibility leads to a(n) _____ probability of bystander intervention.

a. decreased *
b. increased
c. neutral
d. It depends on the situation.

76. Zajonc's theory of social facilitation effects assumes that the presence of others:

a. increases the variability of the performer's responses.
b. increases highly dominant responses. *
c. increases the strength of relatively weak (nondominant. responses.
d. none of the above

77. A unanimous minority:

a. can sway a majority by its consistency and determination. *
b. is nevertheless rarely successful against a majority.
c. has a superficial effect on the thinking of a majority.
d. is eventually swayed by the majority.

78. In some situations (e.g., fire in a crowded theater., crowds may panic and rush for the exits, resulting in injury and loss of life. According to the cognitive interpretation of crowd behavior, panic occurs when:

a. members of the crowd experience intense fear.
b. members of the crowd believe that all escape routes are blocked.
c. members of the crowd believe that escape routes are limited or are closing. *
d. b and c only

79. A mental test is said to have "construct validity" when the test results:

a. are consistent with a larger theoretical scheme. *
b. correlate well with some criterion measure.
c. accurately predict performance at a later time.
d. show that the test is both reliable and valid.

80. Over the past few years, there has been a rise in the mean LSAT scores of students applying to Columbia Law School because the test has been made easier. If the Law School does not change its cutoff score for admission, which of the following will result?

a. an increase in false accepts and an increase in false rejects
b. an increase in false accepts and a decrease in false rejects *
c. a decrease in false accepts and an increase in false rejects
d. a decrease in false accepts and a decrease in false rejects

81. Results from longitudinal studies of mental functioning suggest that, beyond middle adulthood, which of the following is the most likely to show decline?

a. word fluency *
b. factual knowledge
c. vocabulary
d. strategies

82. Which of the following sources of evidence supports the idea that the environment plays an important role in determining IQ?

a. Spending a longer time in an impoverished environment leads to a lower IQ score.
b. Spending a longer time in an enriched environment leads to a higher IQ score.
c. Children raised in environments better than that of their biological parents have higher IQs than would be predicted by their biological parents alone.
d. all of the above *

83. Based on research, what would be the best predictor for whether a given person would commit theft?

a. how often she or he has stolen things in the past *
b. the score value of his or her psychopathic deviance scale on the MMPI
c. ratings and predictions about the individual's behavior from peers
d. self-predictions gathered from a confidential questionnaire

84. With respect to the question of whether the Rorschach and TAT provide useful information over and above that found in a subject's case history:

a. the incremental validity of both the Rorschach and TAT tests is high.
b. the incremental validity of the Rorschach is low, while the incremental validity of the TAT is very high.
c. the incremental validity of the TAT is low, while the incremental validity of the Rorschach is high.
d. the incremental validity of both the Rorschach and TAT is low.*

85. Two persons, Mary and Claire, are given two tests of fearfulness, both rated on a 10-point scale in which zero means "no fear" and 10 means "maximum fear." In the first tests both are confronted with a vicious dog. Here Mary's fear rating is 4 while Claire's is 8. In the second test both are about to take a difficult examination. Here, Mary's rating is 4 while Claire's is 8. The results indicate:

a. an effect of the situation.
b. an effect of differences in personal traits. *
c. an effect of a person-by-situation interaction.
d. no effect.

86. Behaviorists argue that classically-conditioned fear reactions are very persistent because:
a. we tend to avoid the feared object or situation, and so the fear can never be extinguished. *
b. for evolutionary reasons, fear is a stronger motivator than desire.
c. human classical conditioning is partly determined by conscious cognitions, which are more difficult to change than reflexive conditioned responses.
d. all of the above
87. The id, ego, and superego are best regarded as a theory about:

a. three separate personalities inhabiting one body.
b. three different sets of reaction patterns within each personality. *
c. three separate stages in personality development.
d. three distinct types of unconscious conflict.

88. What does Freud feel causes repressed thoughts or memories?

a. hidden sexual urges of childhood
b. an overactive superego
c. parents' reprimands for forbidden thoughts or deeds *
d. various unconscious conflicts

89. The main argument of the neo-Freudians with Freud was that he overemphasized:

a. early social experience.
b. internal conflicts.
c. biological determination. *
d. individual differences in the formation of personality.

90. With respect to cross-cultural patterns of emotion:

a. the patterns of physiological reaction underlying emotions are probably universal.
b. the facial expressions of emotion appear to be universal.
c. the particular experiences that elicit specific emotions appear to vary from culture to culture.
d. all of the above *

91. The maturation process:

a. is considered to result from a complex mixture of genetic and environmental factors.
b. is responsible for the fact that the sequence of steps in motor and perceptual development is different from infant to infant.
c. is a genetically programmed unfolding of behavior patterns that is independent of specific environmental conditions. *
d. both a and b

92. According to Piaget, the infant develops the notion that things exist independently of his own senses. This is known as:

a. reversibility.
b. conservation.
c. transposition.
d. object permanence. *

93. A child views a small table on which is arranged a number of objects. When asked to describe how the model would look to someone standing on the opposite side of the table, the child describes the table as it appears from where he is standing. This is most clearly an example of:

a. irreversibility
b. schema invariance
c. egocentrism *
d. conservation failure

94. Cross-cultural studies suggest a number of differences in cognitive development. For example:

a. in some cultures, many adults fail tests of concrete operations.
b. formal operational thinking is seldom found in cultures without formal schooling.
c. in some preliterate hunting-gathering cultures, formal operational logic appears before concrete operational thought.
d. all of the above *

95. In Ainsworth's "Strange Situation," an infant who was mildly disturbed at the departure of his mother, but approached and was easily soothed by her upon her return would most likely be described as:

a. securely attached. *
b. insecurely attached (avoidant..
c. insecurely attached (resistant..
d. insecurely attached (disorganized..

96. Sue thinks that children should grow up in a totally free environment, with no parentally set limits or rules. What is the best guess about what her children will be like?

a. They will be moody and defiant but will show a striking amount of independence.
b. They will be socially mature for their age but generally pessimistic.
c. They will be independent and show social responsibility.
d. They will seem immature and will not show much independence. *

97. You do not cheat on an exam even though the professor has left the room and there is no chance you will be caught. According to Kohlberg, this is an example of:

a. moral reasoning.
b. preconventional morality.
c. maximal sufficiency.
d. postconventional morality.*

98. Children whose sex is reassigned before the age of three or four generally:

a. acquire the gender role and identity appropriate to the new classification. *
b. learn the new gender role with great difficulty.
c. show permanent confusion over gender identity.
d. retain their original gender identity.

99. The physical and behavioral characteristics of the child can affect how he or she is treated by his or her parents and other people. This is an example of _____ effects on personality development.

a. child-driven *
b. relationship-driven
c. parent-driven
d. family context

100. Cultural evolution proceeds more rapidly than biological evolution because:

a. we are able to modify our own behavior in accordance with our experiences.
b. we are able to conceive of alternatives to the present state of affairs.
c. we are able to use language to convey knowledge to other people.
d. all of the above.*