Department of Psychology
Midterm Examination 1
Choose the best answer to each of the following 50 questions. Questions are drawn from the text and lectures in roughly equal proportions, with the understanding that there is considerable overlap between the two sources. Usually, only one question is drawn from each major section of each chapter of the required readings; again, sometimes this question also draws on material discussed in class. Read the entire exam through before answering any questions: sometimes one question will help you answer another one.
Most questions can be correctly answered in one of two ways: (1) by fact-retrieval, meaning that you remember the answer from your reading of the text or listening to the lecture; or (2) inference, meaning that you can infer the answer from some general principle discussed in the text or lecture. If you cannot determine the correct answer by either of these methods, try to eliminate at least one option as clearly wrong: this maximizes the likelihood that you will get the correct answer by chance. Also, go with your intuitions: if you have actually done the assigned readings and attended the lectures, your "informed guesses" will likely be right more often than they are wrong.
Be sure you are using a red Scantron sheet.
Fill in the appropriate circles with a #2 pencil only.
Be sure you put your name on the front of the red Scantron sheet.
Be sure you put your Student ID# on both sides of the red Scantron sheet.
Indicate Exam 001 (use all three digits) on the reverse side of the red Scantron sheet.
Retain this exam, along with a record of your answers.
1. According to the philosophical doctrine of mentalism:
A. people behave the way they do because of what they think, and desire.*
B. "mind" and "mental" are folk-concepts that science will replace by concepts like genetic transmission, brain modules, and neural activity.
C. mental illness reflects disordered brain function.
D. feelings and desires can be reduced to thoughts and beliefs.
2. In biology, the field of ecology is concerned with the relationship between organisms and their environment. This comes closest to the conception of psychology as a _____ science.
3. In animals, many social interactions depend largely on _________ forms of communication.
4. A researcher conducts a study of the effects of drinking or not drinking coffee on calculus test scores in a group of college students. In this study, the group that drinks coffee is the _________ group.
5. Which of the following is most relevant to a study's external validity?
A. The degree to which the study's participants reflect the greater population.*
B. The degree to which the study is measuring what it claims to be measuring.
C. The fact that the study is conducted outdoors.
D. The degree to which the study's participants are different from the greater population.
6. The word reflex has its origin in
A. Descartes' belief that animals act as automatons whereas people are rational and have souls.
B. Descartes' desire to explain such acts as sneezing without reference to the soul.
C. Descartes' belief that the energy from the outside is reflected back by the nervous system to the animal's muscles.*
D. None of the above.
7. Which of the following investigative techniques provide static images of the brain, showing its anatomy but not its neural activity?
A. CT scans and PET scans.
B. PET and fMRI.
C. CT scans and MRI.*
D. None of the above.
8. __________ are bundles of neurons that lead from the central nervous system to the muscles.
C. Efferent nerves.*
D. Afferent nerves.
9. In which of the lobes would you expect neurons to be most reliably activated by stimulation of the auditory nerve?
10. Damage to the __________ of the human brain is associated with difficulties in planning and social cognition.
A. corpus callosum
B. primary motor cortex
C. sensory projection areas
D. prefrontal cortex*
11. A right-handed woman with a severed corpus callosum fixates on the exact center of a screen just as the word PINEAPPLE is flashed for a quarter of a second. She must indicate what she saw by reaching with her left hand into a grab-bag filled with a variety of objects. Which object is she most likely to select?
A. A small pineapple.
B. A bough of a pine tree.*
C. An apple.
D. The letters E and A made from wire.
12. __________ provide supportive scaffolding for nerve cells and assist in the repair of damaged brain tissue.
C. Glial cells.*
13. In the lock-and-key model of synaptic transmission, the "key" gets to the "lock" by
A. removal of synaptic vesicles.
B. rapid conduction down to the axon.
C. weak attractive forces of the lock.
D. diffusion across the cleft.*
14. A fundamental difference between the endocrine and nervous systems is the
A. distance the chemicals must travel to have an effect.*
B. types of chemicals used as transmitters.
C. means by which messages travel from one cell to another (chemical vs. electrical).
D. presence vs. absence of target organs.
15. Hemispherectomies are sometimes performed in cases of extreme, intractable epilepsy. If performed early enough, children can sometimes subsequently perform at near-normal levels with half a brain. This recovery is possible because of the _________ of children's brains.
D. tendency to heal
16. In the organization of the nervous system, the brainstem corresponds to the _____ level.
17. Which is not a property of the parasympathetic nervous system?
A. Acts discretely on individual organs.
B. Rapid onset.*
C. Slow offset.
D. Conserves resources.
18. As opposed to spinal nerves, the cranial nerves are:
A. exclusively afferent in nature.
B. exclusively efferent in nature.
C. sensorimotor in nature.
D. highly specialized.*
19. In terms of ontogenetic development, as the human matures:
A. more growth occurs in the occipital lobe than the temporal lobe.
B. proportionately more brain tissue is devoted to posterior association cortex.
C. more growth occurs in the cerebellum than the brainstem.
D. proportionately more brain tissue is devoted to prefrontal cortex.*
20. In cases of coma, brain damage is most likely to be found in:
A. the pons and the limbic system.
B. the thalamus and the reticular formation.*
C. the basal ganglia and the hypothalamus.
D. the hippocampus and the amygdala.
21. A neurological patient cannot speak coherently, and also cannot understand the speech of others. Her brain is probably damaged in the _____ lobe.
22. In terms of motivation, which of the following best exemplifies the concept of negative feedback?
A. John coughs, which in turn irritates his throat and makes him cough more.
B. Sarah and Jan argue. Sarah raises her voice, causing Jan to raise her voice even more, which in turn makes Sarah shout.
C. Sam the dog barks furiously whenever he hears a noise in the backyard.
D. When playing hockey, Frank gets very warm and begins to sweat profusely, prompting him to remove his jacket.*
23. What happens when wires are implanted in the anterior hypothalamus of an animal and then the wires are slightly heated up?
A. The animal will act as if it is too warm even though its body temperature is cool.*
B. The animal will act as if it were cold even though its body temperature heats up.
C. The animal will loose the ability to react to heat or cold.
D. The animal will have a small seizure.
24. What can be said about external cues, such as the sight of food?
A. They act independently of internal cues such as feelings of satiety.
B. They are more likely to lead to eating in the context of hunger than satiety.*
C. They are more likely to lead to eating in the context of satiety than hunger.
D. They have no effect on the hypothalamus.
25. Meditation involves a slowing of respiration and heart rate. In order to effect these changes, the activity of the _________ increases.
A. parasympathetic nervous system*
B. sympathetic nervous system
26. What are endorphins?
A. Externally administered drugs such as heroin.
B. A class of neurotransmitters including nalaxone and naltrexone.
C. Opiate-like neurotransmitters.*
D. Neurotransmitters that are responsible for causing pain.
27. What will happen to women with abnormally low testosterone levels who are injected with testosterone?
A. They will develop masculine features.
B. Their sex drives will increase.*
C. Their sex drives will decrease.
D. Their sexual orientations will change.
28. When is a research participant most likely to remember a dream?
A. When she is awakened during REM sleep.*
B. When she is awakened during Stage 1 sleep.
C. When she is awakened during Stage 3 sleep.
D. When she is awakened during Stage 4 sleep.
29. What is known about the symptoms of withdrawal?
A. The symptoms of withdrawal are usually the exact opposite of the effect of the drug one is addicted to.*
B. The symptoms of withdrawal are usually an intensified version of the effect of the drug one is addicted to.
C. The symptoms of withdrawal are more dependant on the personality of the addicted person than on the drug they are addicted to.
D. The symptoms of withdrawal from any type of drug includes profound depression and fatigue.
30. When we talk about the evolutionary "fitness" of an organism, we are referring to characteristics that
A. contribute to the organism's health and survival.
B. enhance the organism's longevity, regardless of its health.
C. contribute to the organism's reproductive success.*
D. make the organism larger and stronger than other members of its species.
31. Evolutionary biologists suggest that birds are generally monogamous because
A. the cooperative efforts of both parents are required to incubate the young.
B. the high metabolic rate of birds makes it difficult for a single male to meet the reproductive needs of several mates.*
C. the short breeding season makes it impossible for males to court and mate with more than one mate.
D. All of the above.
32. Companionate love typically
A. precedes romantic love.
B. follows romantic love.*
C. is independent of romantic love.
D. is opposite to romantic love.
33. To biologists, the facial characteristics of human infants, such as short upturned noses, big eyes, and smiles, are
A. built-in releasers of nurturing behavior by parents.*
B. the ways in which people learn to recognize the ages of different individuals.
C. the features that make contact comfort possible.
D. displays analogous to intention movements in nonhuman animals.
34. When two males roar at each other prior to fighting,
A. they are more aggressive when they begin the fight.
B. they are sending conciliatory signals.
C. they may be able to determine which is likely to win the fight.*
D. the male with the softer roar will initiate the fight.
35. According to the kin-selection hypothesis,
A. animals are more likely to choose related rather than unrelated animals as mates.
B. altruistic behavior should be more likely among relatives than among unrelated individuals.*
C. reciprocal altruism is observed only between closely-related individuals.
D. an animal's relatives punish those who fail to reciprocate the animal's altruism.
36. One of Cannon's major objections to the James-Lange theory of emotion was that
A. different emotions produce the same bodily changes, so it is therefore difficult to tell how a person knows what he or she feels.*
B. the sympathetic nervous system was not given a more prominent role.
C. emotions have different intensities.
D. emotions are subjective experiences; therefore, no theory can be adequate in explaining them.
37. Instincts (or fixed-action patterns):
A. involve the organism's entire skeletal musculature.
B. allow individual species members to change their behavior over the life cycle.
C. can be maladaptive under circumstances of rapid environmental change.*
D. affect the behavior of single individuals, but not that of pairs or larger groups.
38. In terms of the vocabulary of classical conditioning, the _____ is represented by the alarm of a clock radio.
A. unconditioned stimulus*
B. unconditioned response
C. conditioned stimulus
D. conditioned response
39. Procedurally, testing for spontaneous recovery most closely resembles the _____ phase of classical conditioning.
40. In terms of instrumental conditioning, reaching out to shut off the alarm on a clock radio represents the:
A. unconditioned stimulus
B. unconditioned response
C. conditioned stimulus
D. conditioned response*
41. According to Thorndike's Law of Effect:
A. behavior is energized by motivational states such as hunger and thirst.
B. responses are strengthened by reward.*
C. responses are weakened by punishment.
D. relatively few behaviors are subject to instrumental conditioning.
42. In delay conditioning:
A. the CS and US are both contingent and contiguous.
B. the CS and US are contingent but not contiguous.*
C. the CS and US are contiguous but not contingent.
D. the CS and US are neither contiguous nor contingent.
43.. Sarah is trying to study, but the loud noise from her neighbor's party distracts her. However, after some time, Sarah finds that she can concentrate on her work, even though the noise is as loud as it ever was. What process has likely occurred?
C. Classical conditioning.
D. Instrumental conditioning.
44. A dog is conditioned so that it secretes ten drops of saliva to a 1,000 hertz tone. Hypothetically, how many drops of saliva should you expect if you then present the dog with a tone of 750 hertz and 500 hertz respectively?
A. About 7 drops; about 7 drops.
B. About 3 drops; about 7 drops.
C. About 7 drops; about 3 drops.*
D. About 2 drops; about 3 drops.
45. Gamblers often persist at gambling even when they very rarely receive a payoff. How can one explain this persistence?
A. There is a gradual increase in performance with successive approximations.
B. There is a strong resistance to extinction when performance has been maintained with a variable schedule of reinforcement.*
C. Typically, the gambler will pause for a brief rest after each case of reinforcement, thereby increasing stamina.
D. The gambler experiences learned helplessness and is unable to stop.
46. In an experiment, a dog undergoes twenty trials in which he hears a tone and gets meat powder in various combinations. On eighteen of the trials, he gets a tone and meat powder; on one trial, he gets a tone and no meat powder; and on one trial, he gets meat powder and no tone. What is true of this situation?
A. There is a contingency between the sound of tone and meat powder.*
B. There is a contingency between the CS and the UR.
C. There is a negative contingency.
D. There is no contingency.
47. What general principle of learning was most seriously challenged by the results of learned taste aversion studies?
A. The principle of association by contingency.
B. The principle of preparedness.
C. The principle of discriminant generalization.
D. The arbitrariness assumption.*
48. __________ involves a type of learning in which postsynaptic neurons become increasingly sensitive with repeated stimulation.
A. Instrumental conditioning.
B. Negative reinforcement.
C. Stimulus generalization.
D. Long-term potentiation.*
49. What does stimulus generalization depend on that differentiates it from transfer of training?
A. Emitted responses versus elicited responses
B. The use of colorful stimuli versus the use of neutral stimuli
C. Perceptual similarity of the stimuli versus conceptual understanding*
D. A conditioned response versus an operant response
50. What is the most important factor in conditioning?
A. The amount of reinforcement received by the conditioned response.
B. The intensity of the unconditioned stimulus.
C. The informational value of the conditioned stimulus.*
D. The degree to which the conditioned response can be generalized.
Retain this exam, along with a record of your answers.
A provisional answer key will be posted to the course website by 3:00 PM today.
The exam will be provisionally scored to identify and eliminate bad items.
The exam will then be rescored with bad items keyed correct for all responses.
Grades will be posted to the course website.
A final, revised, answer key, and analyses of the exam items,
will be posted on the course website when grades are posted.
Requests for rescoring must be received within
one (1) week of the posting of grades