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Topic: Poly Factorizations (Read 1221 times) |
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Barukh
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Poly Factorizations
« on: Jun 18th, 2007, 12:01pm » |
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Has this been posted before? Factorize the polynomial x3 + 1 modulo prime p.
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Aryabhatta
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Re: Poly Factorizations
« Reply #1 on: Jun 18th, 2007, 12:19pm » |
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Note sure If this has been asked before, but I don't understand the question. What is wrong with (x+1)(x2 - x + 1) ?
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« Last Edit: Jun 18th, 2007, 12:19pm by Aryabhatta » |
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Obob
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Re: Poly Factorizations
« Reply #2 on: Jun 18th, 2007, 1:18pm » |
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Is x^2-x+1 always irreducible mod p, though?
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Aryabhatta
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Re: Poly Factorizations
« Reply #3 on: Jun 18th, 2007, 2:10pm » |
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Does "factorize" always imply irreducible factors? Anyway, I understand the question now
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« Last Edit: Jun 18th, 2007, 2:11pm by Aryabhatta » |
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Aryabhatta
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Re: Poly Factorizations
« Reply #4 on: Jun 19th, 2007, 1:37am » |
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Elimination of certain cases. if p > 6 then for x2 - x + 1 to be reducible mod p, p must be of the form 6k+1. (We must have that in (Z/p)* some element satisfies a6 = 1 and no other lesser power of a is 1)
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« Last Edit: Jun 19th, 2007, 1:38am by Aryabhatta » |
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Barukh
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Re: Poly Factorizations
« Reply #5 on: Jun 19th, 2007, 5:48am » |
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on Jun 19th, 2007, 1:37am, Aryabhatta wrote:if p > 6 then for x2 - x + 1 to be reducible mod p, p must be of the form 6k+1. |
| Nice observation! Can you elaborate?
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Aryabhatta
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Re: Poly Factorizations
« Reply #6 on: Jun 19th, 2007, 9:21am » |
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Sure. If a2-a+1 = 0 Then a3 = -1 which implies a6 = 1 Also a =/= -1. Let y be the smallest power of a which equals 1. Then y | 6. If a2 = 1 then -1 = a3 = a We already know a3 =/= 1 (as p != 2) Thus (Z/p)* has a subgroup of order 6. So 6 must divide p-1.
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« Last Edit: Jun 19th, 2007, 11:10pm by Aryabhatta » |
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Aryabhatta
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Re: Poly Factorizations
« Reply #7 on: Jun 19th, 2007, 10:08pm » |
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Ok. I think we have a way of solving this. Assume p > 6. We are working modulo p. x2 - x +1 = 0 iff 4(x2 - x +1) = 0 iff (2x - 1)2 = -3 Now if y2 = -3 has a solution then there is some x =/= -1 for which 2x-1 = y. (if it turns out that x = -1, then y must -3 so 9 = -3 (mod p). Not possible) By quadratic reciprocity theorem... if one of p, q is of the form 4k+1, y2 = p (mod q) has a solution if and only if z2 = q (mod p) has a solution i.e y2 = -3 (mod p) has a solution iff z2 = p (mod -3) has a solution i.e iff p = 1 (mod 3) Thus the only primes p for which x2-x+1 is reducible are p=2, p =3 and any prime of the form 6k+1.
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« Last Edit: Jun 19th, 2007, 10:10pm by Aryabhatta » |
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Barukh
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Re: Poly Factorizations
« Reply #8 on: Jun 20th, 2007, 7:08am » |
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Nicely done, Aryabhatta! But: on Jun 19th, 2007, 10:08pm, Aryabhatta wrote:Thus the only primes p for which x2-x+1 is reducible are p=2, p =3 and any prime of the form 6k+1. |
| I think p=2 should be excluded. Let's consider now a generalization: for which p, the polynomial xq + 1 is a product of linear factors modulo p, where p, q are both primes?
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Aryabhatta
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Re: Poly Factorizations
« Reply #9 on: Jun 20th, 2007, 10:05am » |
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on Jun 20th, 2007, 7:08am, Barukh wrote: But: I think p=2 should be excluded. |
| Yes, you are right.
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Aryabhatta
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Re: Poly Factorizations
« Reply #10 on: Jun 21st, 2007, 10:21am » |
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on Jun 20th, 2007, 7:08am, Barukh wrote: Let's consider now a generalization: for which p, the polynomial xq + 1 is a product of linear factors modulo p, where p, q are both primes? |
| Do you know of a solution to this?
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Barukh
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Re: Poly Factorizations
« Reply #11 on: Jun 21st, 2007, 11:20am » |
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on Jun 21st, 2007, 10:21am, Aryabhatta wrote:Do you know of a solution to this? |
| Partially... The more interesting may be the discussion!
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Barukh
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Re: Poly Factorizations
« Reply #12 on: Jun 22nd, 2007, 3:55am » |
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Example: x5+1 = (x+1)(x+36)(x+84)(x+87)(x+95) mod 101
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« Last Edit: Jun 22nd, 2007, 3:56am by Barukh » |
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Barukh
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Re: Poly Factorizations
« Reply #13 on: Jun 24th, 2007, 9:21am » |
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How about this? If p = 1 mod q, then xq + 1 is a product of linear factors modulo p.
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« Last Edit: Jun 24th, 2007, 9:22am by Barukh » |
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Barukh
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Re: Poly Factorizations
« Reply #14 on: Jun 26th, 2007, 12:58am » |
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In fact, much more is known! Of course, (x+1) is always a factor. Let d = p mod q, and d a multiplicative order of r in Z/Zq (that is, rd = 1 mod q for the first time). Then, (xq+1)/(x+1) is a product of (q-1)/d factors of degree d! Example: q = 11, p = 43, r = 10, d = 2 (102 = 1 mod 11). And indeed: x11+1 = (x+1)(x2+4x+1)(x2+9x+1)(x2+14x+1)(x2+22x+1)(x 2+36x+1) mod 43 This is attributed to Gauss. I am going to figure out how.
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Aryabhatta
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Re: Poly Factorizations
« Reply #15 on: Jun 26th, 2007, 12:46pm » |
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Interesting... Alas, I am too busy with work to do anything about this Please keep updating this thread with your findings.
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Eigenray
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Re: Poly Factorizations
« Reply #16 on: Jun 27th, 2007, 4:18pm » |
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on Jun 24th, 2007, 9:21am, Barukh wrote:How about this? If p = 1 mod q, then xq + 1 is a product of linear factors modulo p. |
| This only holds if q is odd, in which case xq+1 is equivalent to xq-1. And xq-1 splits into linear factors over Zp if and only if p=q or p=1 mod q. This can be shown using the same argument Aryabhatta used here. Quote:Let d = p mod q, and d a multiplicative order of r in Z/Zq (that is, rd = 1 mod q for the first time). Then, (xq+1)/(x+1) is a product of (q-1)/d factors of degree d! |
| You mean, r = p mod q. To prove this, consider a root z of (xq+1)/(x+1) over Fp, and the elements z, zp, zp^2, .... (There's a sketch of the argument here.)
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Barukh
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Re: Poly Factorizations
« Reply #17 on: Jun 28th, 2007, 5:36am » |
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on Jun 27th, 2007, 4:18pm, Eigenray wrote: This only holds if q is odd, in which case xq+1 is equivalent to xq-1. |
| Yes. But what do you mean by "equivalent"? Quote: Of course... Quote:To prove this, consider a root z of (xq+1)/(x+1) over Fp, and the elements z, zp, zp^2, .... (There's a sketch of the argument here.) |
| This is too heavy machinery. I wonder if there exists a more elementary argument. For instance, the case p = 1 mod q may be shown with purely combinatorical argument.
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Barukh
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Re: Poly Factorizations
« Reply #18 on: Jul 1st, 2007, 1:29am » |
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Ok, things are clearer now (for me). I managed even to understand Eigenray's very concise argument in another thread. As usual, I again messed up things by confusing the finite field Fpn with the group Z/pnZ, which isn't even a field when n > 1! If anybody is interested, I will try to find time and inspiration to explain the solution in more detailed manner.
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